Campaign Manager Certification Exam Answers 2021

Exam Name: Campaign Manager Certification Exam

Exam URL: https://skillshop.exceedlms.com/student/path/8638-campaign-manager-certification-exam

Q1. When dynamic display creatives are published from Studio, what creative type is set in Campaign Manager?

  • Image
  • HTML5 banner
  • Custom Display Interstitial
  • Rich Media

Q2. To link a Display & Video 360 advertiser, what initial step must be taken in Campaign Manager?

  • From Campaign Manager, go to the Google Marketing Platform apps icon and select Display & Video 360
  • Contact support using live chat
  • Add the Display & Video 360 partner ID to the Floodlight configuration as an association
  • Create a new association in the advertiser’s properties and add the Trafficking code

Q3. What cost model only calculates cost for impressions measured as viewable by Active View?

  • CPA
  • CPC
  • CPM
  • vCPM

Q4. Where are Campaign Manager and Display & Video 360 linked?

  • Advertiser properties
  • Floodlight configuration
  • Admin subaccounts
  • Campaign properties

Q5. When the primary HTML5 assets get delayed, what will serve in a user’s browser as it’s loading?

  • Default ad
  • Polite load image
  • Backup image
  • .swf file

Q6. When would a VPAID asset be used?

  • When a video ad contains interactive features
  • When VAST is not supported
  • As a backup for a VAST asset
  • For videos served on mobile devices

Q7. For Floodlight tags to properly attribute in-app conversions, what needs to happen within the app?

  • A global site tag (gtag.js) must be used
  • The tag needs to be set as INS tag with mobile capacity
  • The tag needs to be assigned an app ID
  • Device ID needs to be passed into the dc_rdid parameter

Q8. What happens when a user meets the frequency cap for an ad?

  • Another ad or a default ad is served
  • The placement stops serving to that user
  • Ads stop serving to that user
  • Ads serve at a lower CPM

Q9. If an Agency Trafficker can only see a subset of active campaigns within their account view, where would a Agency Admin go to adjust access to all campaigns?

  • User profile filters
  • User roles
  • Google account permissions
  • Subaccount access

Q10. Which information can be extracted from the data in the Verification tab? (select two)

  • Charts showing all of the errors related to visual performance
  • Issues related to content
  • Errors for the ad tag related to implementation issues
  • Conversion and revenue performance

Q11. What does an “execution channel” represent in the Planning process?

  • A “channel” created between an advertiser and publisher as soon as the RFP is sent
  • The “link” from the inventory in a media plan to a Campaign Manager campaign where placements can be executed
  • The act of sending an RFP to begin the negotiation process with the publisher
  • An area to enter the user’s objectives, budget, and start and end dates

Q12. What targeting rules display an ad to users who have viewed a product, but not purchased it?

  • Positively target all product viewers AND negatively target all product purchasers
  • Positively target all product viewers AND collect purchase IDs using u-variables
  • Positively target all product purchasers AND negatively target all product viewers
  • Negatively target all product purchasers AND collect purchase IDs using u-variables

Q13. What attribution model uses Floodlight data from both attributed and non-attributed conversions?

  • Linear model
  • First Interaction model
  • Data-driven model
  • Time Decay model

Q14. In which two tags can the keyword macro (%k) be added? (select two)

  • Floodlight
  • Tracking Ad
  • Impression Event
  • Placement

Q15. In a Path to Conversion report, when a user selects to “Pivot On Interaction Path,” what are two major differences from the unpivoted report? (select two)

  • Rows and columns aren’t affected by a pivot, but can only be filtered when unpivoted
  • Each conversion gets its own row with interactions in separate columns
  • Rows and columns are flipped
  • Each interaction gets its own row with interactions spread across rows

Q16. What is required to track mobile app conversions using Floodlight tags?

  • A dynamic publisher pixel implemented in the Floodlight tag
  • An HTML5 macro added to the Floodlight tag and ad tag, and uploaded in the SDK
  • A Floodlight tag with the activities set to collect in-app variables, available in DT files
  • A user-resettable device identifier passed to both Floodlight tags and the ad tags running in apps

Q17. Cross-environment conversion methodology takes into account what data sources?

  • Device types, OS, cookies
  • Cookies, SDKs, audience data
  • Data pools, cookies, audience IDs
  • Resettable device IDs, cookies, anonymized Google sign-ins

Q18. What data is provided in Video Verification?

  • Video player size and viewability
  • Asset and transcoding validation
  • Resolution and bit rate details
  • Information about ads that served on the same page

Q19. What timezone is used in Data Transfer (DT) timestamps for impression and click files?

  • Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)
  • The advertiser’s timezone
  • The user’s timezone
  • Eastern Time (ET)

Q20. What report shows how long it takes for a customer to convert after interacting with an ad?

  • First Interaction
  • Path to Conversion
  • Path Length
  • Time Lag

Q21. What ad setting limits the number of times that ad can be shown to a particular user?

  • Priority
  • Frequency cap
  • Hard cut-off
  • Impression ratio

Q22. When a Top Conversion Paths report shows that most users enter the purchase cycle with a rich media interaction, what action can be taken to optimize the campaign?

  • Allocate more budget to building better video creatives
  • Target remarketing lists for all image creatives
  • Create a sequential rotation with the Rich Media creative set first
  • Assign the ad’s frequency cap to one impression per day

Q23. When using a placement media cost cap, what will happen once the cap is reached?

  • Campaign Manager will stop calculating and reporting Media Cost for the Placement moving forward
  • The placement will be paused until the cap is removed
  • Reports will not reflect the impressions and click metrics
  • Ad-serving fees won’t be charged

Q24. What feature can be used to combine log-level impression and click data for a custom reach analysis?

  • Data Transfer
  • Line item filtering in Studio
  • Attribution conversion segments
  • GRP Insights

Q25. Which functionalities are available to manage conversion data using the API? (select two)

  • Delete
  • Insert
  • Update
  • Run

Q26. At what level can landing pages be managed across campaigns?

  • Advertiser
  • Ad
  • Creative
  • Placement

Q27. When a “plan” is executed in Planning, what information is pushed to Campaign Manager?

  • A list of placements you intend to purchase and the publishers you’re buying inventory from
  • A dynamic feed that can be quickly implemented into Studio
  • TrueView placements for running on YouTube properties
  • A list of creative specifications for implementing the deals in Display & Video 360

Q28. When is an impression counted in Reporting?

  • As soon as a creative is requested from the publisher
  • After a user’s device indicates that the creative download has begun
  • After the creative is served and viewed on the site
  • After the browser begins loading the webpage

Q29. What action must occur for a team member to get access to Data Transfer files in Google Cloud Storage?

  • Set up an automated email for the team member to receive daily reports
  • Add the team member’s email to the Google Group associated with the Cloud Storage bucket
  • Associate the team member with a User Profile designated for Google Cloud access
  • Run the script: gs://[bucket_name]/[username]

Q30. What account structure should be used to share Floodlight tags and audience lists between multiple Advertisers?

  • Shared billing profiles
  • An account/advertiser relationship
  • A single Floodlight activity
  • A parent/child relationship

Q31. In the Insights tab in Reporting, which two cards show a snapshot of performance? (select two)

  • Paid Search Ad
  • Creative Type
  • Video Player Size
  • Device Usage

Q32. Which metric is NOT available in Data Transfer?

  • % Invalid Clicks
  • Cross-environment conversions
  • Designated Market Area (DMA) ID
  • Active View: % of Completed Impressions Visible

Q33. Where would purchased inventory for a campaign be entered in Campaign Manager?

  • Placements
  • Landing pages
  • Campaigns
  • Floodlight tags

Q34. What is the limit to retrieve log data from a Data Transfer Google Bucket?

  • 1 year
  • 30 days
  • 60 days
  • Unlimited

Q35. Which three workflows can be used to make bulk edits? (select three)

  • The DCM/DFA Reporting and Trafficking API
  • The Campaign Manager filtered view
  • Campaign spreadsheet upload
  • The Edit Multiple button

Q36. What Floodlight conversion counting method would report the first visit for each user within a given day?

  • Standard
  • Unique
  • Per session
  • Transactions

Q37. What report tracks Floodlight attribution in Reporting?

  • Cookie Reach Overlap
  • Insights
  • Floodlight impressions
  • Path to Conversion

Q38. Unless default ads are disabled, what campaign trafficking action triggers the automatic creation of a default ad for display placements?

  • Adding an image creative at the campaign level
  • Adding an HTML5 creative at the campaign level
  • Adding a rich media creative at the campaign level
  • Adding an image creative at the advertiser level

Q39. What HTML elements of a Floodlight tag’s iFrame code identify the unique activity?

  • u1 and “fls”
  • 1×1 and “ord”
  • “src” and 1×1
  • “type” and “cat”

Q40. Which two methods count impressions on site-served creatives? (select two)

  • Tracking Ads
  • Mobile tracking ad
  • Click tracker ad
  • 1×1 impression tracker

Q41. Where in Campaign Manager can the Site ID(s) required to push placements to Display & Video 360 be found?

  • Next to its associated site name within a Campaign
  • In the advertiser’s properties, under Landing Pages
  • In Campaign Manager Account Admin settings
  • In Site Directory under Properties

Q42. What are two benefits of using the INS tag? (select two)

  • Eliminates the need for publishers to add cache-busters
  • Reduces load latency
  • More robust Verification data
  • Serves ads on browsers that don’t support Javascript

Q43. What report in Report Builder shows the number of unique users who have interacted with ads?

  • Path to Conversion
  • Cookie Reach Overlap
  • Standard
  • GRP

Q44. Paid search dimensions in Report Builder are compatible with what metric?

  • Path to Conversion
  • Cookie Reach Overlap
  • Standard
  • GRP

Q45. What is the more cost-effective way to restrict ads served to a specific geographic region?

  • Geo-targeting managed by the ad server
  • Language targeting managed by the ad server
  • Geo-targeting managed by a publisher or DSP
  • Frequency caps managed the publisher or DSP

Q46. What are three benefits of using Internal Redirect tags? (select three)

  • Standardize a counting method with platform publishers
  • Reduce latency on ad-serving
  • Richer domain information in Verification
  • Saves time from having to negotiate deals with the publisher

Q47. What settings are required to give a user reporting access for a single advertiser?

  • Create a user role, and assign the advertiser as the sub-account.
  • Schedule a report to be sent to the user, automatically granting them access to that data
  • Create a user profile with a reporting-only user role, and filter for that advertiser
  • Ask the advertiser to send an email to support, granting access to their reporting data

Q48. Which two tabs in Reporting provide access to viewability data? (select two)

  • Report Builder
  • Verification
  • Attribution
  • Summary

Q49. To set ad status to “active,” which two objects must be assigned to an ad?

  • A priority
  • A frequency cap
  • An active creative
  • A placement

Q50. What section within a Floodlight activity’s settings allows users to add publisher tracking tags?

  • Dynamic tags
  • Google Tag Manager
  • Advanced properties
  • Custom Floodlight variables

Q51. What Floodlight feature can be used to create a custom audience list that targets customers who purchased a specific product or service?

  • Dynamic Floodlight tag that sources product or service IDs
  • Sales Floodlight tags that capture revenue
  • Custom 1×1 pixel that fires when the product or service page loads
  • Custom Floodlight variable that captures the product or service ID

Q52. What counting method tracks the number of sales made or items purchased?

  • Sales activities
  • Custom Floodlight variables
  • Counter activities
  • Standard counting

Q53. Agency Admin, Agency Trafficker, and Site Trafficker are examples of what?

  • User profiles
  • User roles
  • Content categories
  • Placement strategies

Q54. What level is used to calculate conversions if the lookback window differs between objects?

  • Placement level
  • Account level
  • Campaign level
  • Site level

Q55. If a publisher serves a placement tag after the campaign end date, what ad will serve?

  • The default ad
  • Nothing will serve
  • A random ad
  • The backup image

Q56. At what level can landing pages be set, so they are the same across multiple ads?

  • Creative
  • Placement
  • Account
  • Ad

Q57. What ad setting ensures a qualified user will always be served a city-targeted ad first over a country-targeted ad when both ads are assigned to the same placement?

  • Keyword targeting
  • Frequency cap
  • Dynamic targeting keys
  • Priority

Q58. What must a Floodlight tag include to capture product data alongside a conversion?

  • An ord value
  • 1×1 tracking pixel
  • Custom Floodlight variable
  • Dynamic pixels

Q59. What action can be taken to select which columns appear in the trafficking interface?

  • Create a new user role
  • Create a custom view
  • Create a new user profile
  • Create a filter

Q60. When assets are added to an existing creative, where will these updates be reflected?

  • In the creative preview, but not in currently assigned ads
  • Updates appear as a new creative
  • Within the ads where the creatives are assigned
  • In future ad creative assignments, but not within existing ads

Q61. What are two Video Verification metrics? (select two)

  • Video Prominence Score
  • Audio muted at finish
  • Eligible impressions for audio
  • Audio muted at start

Q62. The Insights tab in Reporting shows the view performance against which three goals? (select three)

  • Viewable CPM
  • Click rate
  • Conversions per impression
  • Cost per activity (CPA)

Q63. Counters and Total Interactions metrics are available for which type of creatives?

  • Mobile in-app interstials
  • Twitter creatives
  • HTML5 creatives coded in GWD
  • Creatives built in Studio

Q64. Which two features may be used to log additional information about a click? (select two)

  • Dynamic targeting keys
  • Landing page URL suffix
  • Image source tags
  • Event tags

Q65. Which two methods measure impressions served in a mobile app? (select two)

  • 1×1 impression tracker
  • Mobile tracking ad
  • Serving mobile creative directly through Campaign Manager
  • Click tracker ad

Q66. Audience lists created in Campaign Manager can be automatically shared with which linked applications? (select three)

  • Search Ads 360
  • Studio
  • Google Ads
  • Display & Video 360

Q67. What object in Campaign Manager is equivalent to a creative in Display & Video 360?

  • Placement
  • Campaign
  • Ad
  • Creative

Q68. Which conditions must be true in order to designate an advertiser as a “child”?

  • The advertiser doesn’t have any “child” advertisers associated with it
  • The advertiser is part of a subaccount
  • There aren’t any Floodlight activities associated with the “child” advertiser
  • There aren’t any campaigns associated with the “parent” advertiser

Q69. The “DCM/DFA Trafficking and Reporting API” can directly accomplish which two tasks? (select two)

  • Customize reporting
  • Upload conversions
  • Download data transfer log files
  • Customize verification alerts