Q1. What route would have the lowest administrative distance?
- a directly connected network
- a route received through the EIGRP routing protocol
- a static route
- a route received through the OSPF routing protocol
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
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Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q3. What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?
- distributes access to end users
- acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and distributing network traffic throughout the campus
- represents the network edge
- provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies
Explanation: One of the functions of the distribution layer is aggregating large-scale wiring closet networks. Providing access to end users is a function of the access layer, which is the network edge. Acting as a backbone is a function of the core layer.
Q4. Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)
- Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
- Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
- Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
- For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.
- Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.
- Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
Explanation: Extended ACLs should be placed as close as possible to the source IP address, so that traffic that needs to be filtered does not cross the network and use network resources. Because standard ACLs do not specify a destination address, they should be placed as close to the destination as possible. Placing a standard ACL close to the source may have the effect of filtering all traffic, and limiting services to other hosts. Filtering unwanted traffic before it enters low-bandwidth links preserves bandwidth and supports network functionality. Decisions on placing ACLs inbound or outbound are dependent on the requirements to be met.
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Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q6. Which address prefix range is reserved for IPv4 multicast?
- 169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255
- 127.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255
- 240.0.0.0 – 254.255.255.255
- 224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255
Explanation: Multicast IPv4 addresses use the reserved class D address range of 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.
Q7. Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?
- Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.
- On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.
- Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers.
- In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q8. What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.)
- no required configuration
- security
- a reduction in the number of trunk links
- cost reduction
- improved IT staff efficiency
- end user satisfaction
Explanation: Security, cost reduction, and improved IT staff efficiency are all benefits of using VLANs, along with higher performance, broadcast storm mitigation, and simpler project and application management. End users are not usually aware of VLANs, and VLANs do require configuration. Because VLANs are assigned to access ports, they do not reduce the number of trunk links.
Q9. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?
- directly-connected routes
- local routes
- C and L source routes
- remote routes
Explanation: Routing table entries for remote routes will have a next hop IP address. The next hop IP address is the address of the router interface of the next device to be used to reach the destination network. Directly-connected and local routes have no next hop, because they do not require going through another router to be reached.
Q10. Which type of inter-VLAN communication design requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?
- legacy inter-VLAN routing
- routing via a multilayer switch
- routing for the management VLAN
- router on a stick
Explanation: The router-on-a-stick design always includes subinterfaces on a router. When a multilayer switch is used, multiple SVIs are created. When the number of VLANs equals the number of ports on a router, or when the management VLAN needs to be routed, any of the inter-VLAN design methods can be used.
Q11. Which two devices allow hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other? (Choose two.)
- repeaterhub
- Layer 3 switch
- Layer 2 switch
- router
Explanation: Members of different VLANs are on separate networks. For devices on separate networks to be able to communicate, a Layer 3 device, such as a router or Layer 3 switch, is necessary.
Q12. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)
- ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
- FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS.
- RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.
- NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
- ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.
Explanation: ROM is a nonvolatile memory and stores bootup instructions, basic diagnostic software, and a limited IOS. Flash is a nonvolatile memory used as permanent storage for the IOS and other system-related files. RAM is volatile memory and stores the IP routing table, IPv4 to MAC address mappings in the ARP cache, packets that are buffered or temporarily stored, the running configuration, and the currently running IOS. NVRAM is a nonvolatile memory that stores the startup configuration file.
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Q14. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?
- to identify the network address of the destination network
- to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
- to identify the host address of the destination host
- to identify faulty frames
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q15. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?
- FE80::/10
- FEC0::/10
- FF00::/8
- FDEE::/7
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q16. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
- a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
- an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
- a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
- an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
- a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q17. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?
- all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link
- all IPv6 DHCP servers
- all IPv6 configured routers on the local link
- all IPv6 enabled devices across the network
Explanation: FF02::2 identifies all IPv6 routers that exist on the link or network. FF02::1 is the target for all IPv6 enabled devices on the link or network.
Q18. A router is configured to participate in multiple routing protocol: RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF. The router must send a packet to network 192.168.14.0. Which route will be used to forward the traffic?
- a 192.168.14.0/26 route that is learned via RIP
- a 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via RIP
- a 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via OSPF
- a 192.168.14.0/24 route that is learned via EIGRP
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q19. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?
- 192.168.1.64/29
- 192.168.1.32/28
- 192.168.1.32/27
- 192.168.1.64/26
Explanation: For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.
Q20. What does the IP address 192.168.1.15/29 represent?
- multicast address
- broadcast address
- unicast address
- subnetwork address
Explanation: A broadcast address is the last address of any given network. This address cannot be assigned to a host, and it is used to communicate with all hosts on that network.
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Q22. An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?
- 4096
- 256
- 512
- 1024
Explanation: Subnetting a /56 prefix to a /64 prefix involves increasing the network prefix by 8 bits. 8 bits will create 256 subnets. The last 64 bits of the address is reserved for the interface ID.
Q23. What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?
- failure domain
- user domain
- broadcast domain
- collision domain
Explanation: A failure domain is a portion of the network that is affected when a device or service fails or experiences problems.
Q24. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
- grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
- providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
- providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
- grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
Explanation: EtherChannel is utilized on a network to increase speed capabilities by grouping multiple physical ports into one or more logical EtherChannel links between two switches. STP is used to provide redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic between switches. FHRPs are used to group physical devices to provide traffic flow in the event of failure.
Q25. Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?
- ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
- ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)
- ability to build a routing table
- ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself
Explanation: Multilayer switches, also known as Layer 3 switches, can route and build a routing table. This capability is required in a multi-VLAN network and would influence the network designer to select a multilayer switch. The other options are features also available on Layer 2 switches, so they would not influence the decision to select a multilayer switch.
Q26. A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?
- Configure all ports on the new switch to access mode.
- Configure the VLANs on the new switch.
- Associate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
- Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.
Explanation: In order to exchange VTP information, the new switch must be configured with the same VTP domain name and password as the other switches in the network.
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Q29. What eliminates switching loops?
- Time to Live
- VTP
- hold-down timers
- poison reverse
- Spanning Tree Protocol
Explanation: Spanning tree creates a single path through a switch network. This is important at Layer 2 because there is no feature such as the Layer 3 TTL to stop data from traveling infinitely through the network. This helps keep switch MAC address tables stable in broadcast storms, and when multiple frames are sent.
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Q32. Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?
- It carries the geographical information of the organization.
- It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.
- It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.
- It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.
Explanation: The autonomous system number used in the EIGRP configuration is not associated with the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) globally assigned autonomous system numbers that are used by external routing protocols. It just functions as a process ID, which is necessary because a router may run multiple instances of EIGRP. Each instance of EIGRP can be configured to support and exchange routing updates for different networks. An organization has the freedom to choose its own AS number in the EIGRP configuration.
Q33. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?
- The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.
- The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.
- The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.
- The router uses the default route.
Explanation: Because EIGRP uses the DUAL algorithm, the router is able to maintain information on all potential loop-free backup routes. In the event of the failure of a routing table entry, the router immediately inserts the best backup route into the routing table.
Q34. What is a function of OSPF hello packets?
- to send specifically requested link-state records
- to ensure database synchronization between routers
- to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them
- to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers
Explanation: The OSPF hello packet serves three primary functions: discover OSPF neighbors and establish adjacencies, advertise parameters that OSPF neighbors must agree on, and elect the DR and BDR.
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Q41. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
- RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
- RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
- RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
- RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
- RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q42. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)
- access-class 5 in
- access-list 5 deny any
- access-list standard VTY permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
- access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
- ip access-group 5 out
- ip access-group 5 in
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
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Q46. Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)
- S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan
- S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan
- S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
- S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
- S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q47. Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
- Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
- Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.
- Configure SSH for remote management.
- Configure all unused ports to a “black hole.”
- Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q48. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
- scalability
- ISP selection
- speed of convergence
- the autonomous system that is used
- campus backbone architecture
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q49. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
- the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
- the type of network link
- the link next-hop IP address
- the link bandwidth
- the cost of that link
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q50. What is a disadvantage of NAT?
- There is no end-to-end addressing.
- The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
- The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
- The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q51. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
- Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
- Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
- Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
- Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q52. What is a function of the distribution layer?
- fault isolation
- network access to the user
- high-speed backbone connectivity
- interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q53. Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)
- Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.
- Half duplex has only one channel.
- All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
- Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.
- Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q54. Which three parameters could be in an extended access control list? (Choose three.)
- access list number between 1 and 99
- access list number between 100 and 199
- default gateway address and wildcard mask
- destination address and wildcard mask
- source address and wildcard mask
- subnet mask and wild card mask
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q55. An organization needs to provide temporary voice and data services to a new small lab building. They plan to install an access switch in the new lab and connect it using a 100Mb/s FastEthernet trunk link. The network administrator is concerned about the capability of the link to meet quality requirements of the proposed voice and data services. The administrator plans to manage the datalink layer traffic to and from the lab so that trunk usage is optimized. What could the administrator apply to the trunk to help achieve this?
- Disable Spanning Tree Protocol to provide maximum bandwidth for the voice and data traffic.
- Configure the switches to run Per VLAN Spanning Tree for the voice and data VLANs only.
- Configure the lab switch to use the same voice and data VLAN as the rest of the campus LAN.
- Configure the trunk ports on the trunk link to the lab to allow only the voice and data VLANs.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q56. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?
- OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
- OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
- OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
- OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
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Q58. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
- Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
- Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
- Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
- The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
- Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q59. Which OSPF component is identical in all routers in an OSPF area after convergence?
- adjacency database
- link-state database
- routing table
- SPF tree
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q60. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?
- They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
- They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
- They can be created with a number but not with a name.
- They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
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Q63. What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?
- The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled.
- All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers.
- All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN.
- Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q64. Fill in the blank.
The ip default-gateway command is used to configure the default gateway on a switch.Explanation: No answer description available for this question
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Q66. When are EIGRP update packets sent?
- only when necessary
- when learned routes age out
- every 5 seconds via multicast
- every 30 seconds via broadcast
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q67. Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update packets?
- EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.
- EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.
- EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.
- EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q68. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
- prevents Layer 2 loops
- prevents routing loops on a router
- creates smaller collision domains
- creates smaller broadcast domains
- allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q69. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?
- Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
- Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
- Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
- It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q70. Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?
- WPA
- WEP
- WPA2 with TKIP
- WPA2 with AES
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q71. Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?
- ad hoc mode
- hotspot
- infrastructure mode
- mixed mode
Explanation: Tethering enables a wireless device such as a phone to provide wireless Internet connectivity to other devices, thus creating a hotspot. Infrastructure mode is the type of wireless network that is created when an access point is being used. Mixed mode allows older wireless NICs to attach to an access point that can use a newer wireless standard.
Q72. A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?
- The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be interference-free.
- Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services.
- The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.
- The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the latest wireless NICs, which will reduce usage.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q73. What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
- Configuring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the configuration of the physical links.
- Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels.
- EtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth.
- Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical connection.
- Spanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces in an EtherChannel to a forwarding state.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
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Q79. A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a Layer 2 switched network. Upon examining the IP header, the administrator notices that the TTL value is not decreasing. Why is the TTL value not decreasing?
- This is the normal behavior for a Layer 2 network.
- The MAC address table is corrupt.
- The VLAN database is full.
- The outbound interface is set for half duplex.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q80. What are the two methods that a wireless NIC can use to discover an AP? (Choose two.)
- sending an ARP request broadcast
- sending a multicast frame
- transmitting a probe request
- initiating a three-way handshake
- receiving a broadcast beacon frame
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
