CCNA 3 Chapter 2: Scaling VLANs (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Exam Answers – 100% Result

Certification Answers

Q1. A switch is participating in a VTP domain and configured as a VTP server. The switch needs to propagate VLAN 10 (used by the Manufacturing department) throughout the VTP domain, but does not have any directly connected hosts using that particular VLAN. Which configuration would satisfy this requirement?

  • interface fa0/24 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 10
  • vlan 10 name Manufacturing exit
  • vtp mode server vtp password Manufacturing
  • interface g0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk native vlan 10
Explanation:  The best practice to add a VLAN to the VLAN database with no local hosts to be in that VLAN is to configure that VLAN (vlan 10) with its name (name Manufacturing) and use the exit command to complete the configuration. Do not assign any switch interfaces to that VLAN.

Q2. Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?

  • S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
  • S1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none
  • S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
  • S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
  • S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate
Explanation:  To prevent DTP frames from being generated by the interface of a Cisco switch, use the S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate command. DTP is Cisco proprietary and not usable by other vendors.

Q3. While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a network administrator issues the no switchport command on an interface that is connected to another switch. What is the purpose of this command?

  • to create a switched virtual interface
  • to create a routed port for a single network
  • to provide a static trunk link
  • to provide an access link that tags VLAN traffic
Explanation:  When a Layer 2 interface on a multilayer switch is configured with the no switchport command, it becomes a routed port. A routed port is configured with an IP address for a specific subnet.

Q4. What happens to switch ports after the VLAN to which they are assigned is deleted?

  • The ports are placed in trunk mode.
  • The ports are assigned to VLAN1, the default VLAN.
  • The ports stop communicating with the attached devices.
  • The ports are disabled.
Explanation:  The affected ports must be reconfigured for an active VLAN.

Q5. Given the following configuration, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

switch(vlan)# vtp version 2
switch(vlan)# vtp mode server
switch(vlan)# vtp domain Cisco
switch(vlan)# vtp password mypassword
  • This switch can advertise its VLAN configuration to other switches in the Cisco domain only, but can receive advertisements from other domains.
  • This switch maintains a full list of all VLANs and can create VLANs, but cannot delete or modify existing VLANs.
  • This switch can send and receive advertisements from only the Cisco domain.
  • This switch can create, modify, and delete all VLANs within the Cisco domain.
  • The password will prevent unauthorized routers from participating in the Cisco domain.
Explanation:  A switch in VTP server mode can create, modify, and delete VLANs as well as transmit that information (if the switch has the highest VTP configuration revision number) to other switches in the same VTP domain.

Q6. What is a characteristic of a routed port on a Layer 3 switch?

  • It is not assigned to a VLAN.
  • It is commonly used as a WAN link.
  • It supports trunking.
  • It cannot have an IP address assigned to it.
Explanation:  A routed port on a Layer 3 switch is commonly used for connecting between distribution and core layer switches or between a Layer 3 switch and a router. This port does not get VLAN or trunking commands assigned to it. Instead, the port is programmed with an IP address. This is commonly used when static routing is configured on the switch or when a routing protocol is being run between the Layer 3 switch and the router or another Layer 3 switch.

Q7. Where is the vlan.dat file stored on a switch?

  • on the externally attached storage media or internal hard drive
  • in RAM
  • in NVRAM
  • in flash memory
Explanation:  Normal range VLAN configurations are stored within a VLAN database file, called vlan.dat, which is located in the flash memory of the switch.

Q8. How are IP addressing designs affected by VLAN implementations?

  • Each VLAN must have a different network number.
  • VLANs do not use a broadcast address.
  • VLANs do not support VLSM.
  • Each VLAN must have a different subnet mask.
Explanation:  Each VLAN requires its own network number, broadcast address, and valid IP addresses because each VLAN is a separate network. IP addressing schemes are frequently designed with the VLAN numbers as part of the design.

Q9. What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches for inter-VLAN routing?

  • Multilayer switches have higher latency for Layer 3 routing.
  • Spanning tree must be disabled in order to implement routing on a multilayer switch.
  • Multilayer switches are more expensive than router-on-a-stick implementations.
  • Multilayer switches are limited to using trunk links for Layer 3 routing.
Explanation:  The main disadvantage of the multilayer switches is their higher cost. Because both routing and switching are done in hardware, multilayer switches are faster than router-on-a-stick.

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Q11. Fill in the blank.

In a Cisco switch, the extended range VLAN information is stored in the running configuration file.
Explanation:  Extended range VLAN information is stored in the running configuration, unlike normal range VLANs which are stored in the vlan.dat file in flash. Extended range VLANs have other differences from normal range VLANs as well.​

Q12. Which three actions can cause problems with a VTP implementation? (Choose three.)

  • using a non-trunk link to connect switches
  • using lowercase on one switch and uppercase on another switch for domain names
  • not using any VTP passwords on any switches
  • configuring all switches to be in VTP server mode
  • using non-Cisco switches
  • having a VTP transparent switch in between a VTP server switch and a VTP client switch (all switches in the same VTP domain)
Explanation:  Besides domain name, other issues to check are VTP versions, VTP password, and revision number before inserting a switch into any network where VTP is active.

Q13. Which two events will cause the VTP revision number on a VTP server to change? (Choose two.)

  • changing the switch to a VTP client
  • rebooting the switch
  • changing interface VLAN designations
  • adding VLANs
  • changing the VTP domain name
Explanation:  Changing the VTP domain name always resets the VTP revision number to 0. This is an important step in adding switches to an existing VTP domain no matter what VTP mode the switch uses.

Q14. On a Cisco switch, where is extended range VLAN information stored?

  • running configuration file
  • NVRAM
  • startup configuration file
  • flash
Explanation:  Extended range VLANs, 1006 through 4094, are not written to the vlan.dat file but are saved in the running configuration file.

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Q17. Which two VTP parameters must be identical on all switches in the network in order to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose two.)

  • VTP transparent modeVTP server mode
  • VTP domain password
  • VTP client mode
  • VTP domain name
  • VTP revision number
Explanation:  VTP updates are sent to other switches in the same domain with the same password. The configuration revision number is used to determine whether a switch keeps its existing VLAN database or updates it with the new information.

Q18. What is a characteristic of VTP?

  • Switches in VTP transparent mode revert back to VTP server mode after a reboot.
  • Switches in VTP server mode cannot be updated by switches in VTP client mode.
  • Switches in VTP transparent mode forward VTP advertisements.
  • Switches in VTP client mode store VLAN information in NVRAM.
Explanation:  All switches in the same VTP domain forward advertisements to other switches.

Q19. Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? (Choose two.)

  • on links that should dynamically attempt trunking
  • when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch
  • when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto
  • when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable
  • on links that should not be trunking
Explanation:  Cisco best practice recommends disabling DTP on links where trunking is not intended and when a Cisco switch is connected to a non-Cisco switch. DTP is required for dynamic trunk negotiation.

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Q21. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. Which command is missing on the Layer 3 switch to restore the full connectivity between PC1 and the web server? (Note that typing no shutdown will not fix this problem.)

  • ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
Explanation:  On the Layer 3 switch, an SVI has to be explicitly created for each VLAN. PC1 belongs to VLAN 10, which is already created on the Layer 3 switch and with an IP address assigned. The web server belongs to VLAN 20. The interface vlan 20 command was already entered on the Layer 3 switch, but with no IP address assigned to it. So the ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 command has to be entered in the interface vlan 20 interface mode. To test the connectivity between the PC1 and the web server, access PC1, select the Desktop tab, click on the Web Browser application and enter on the URL box “www.webserver.com”. A message “Congratulations! You’ve got it!” will be displayed.

Q22. How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?

  • Traffic is broadcast out all physical interfaces.
  • Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces.
  • Traffic is routed via subinterfaces.
  • Traffic is routed via physical interfaces.
Explanation:  Multilayer switches can perform inter-VLAN routing by the use of internal VLAN interfaces. External physical interfaces can receive traffic but are not necessary for routing functions. When routing between VLANs, any broadcast traffic that is received on a VLAN would remain on ports that are members of that VLAN. Subinterfaces are not usable for inter-VLAN routing on multilayer switches.

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Q26. Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?

  • show interfaces trunk
  • show mac address-table interface Fa0/1
  • show vlan brief
  • show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport
Explanation:  The show interfaces switchport command displays the following information for a given port:
Switchport
Administrative Mode
Operational Mode
Administrative Trunking Encapsulation
Operational Trunking Encapsulation
Negotiation of Trunking
Access Mode VLAN
Trunking Native Mode VLAN
Administrative Native VLAN tagging
Voice VLAN

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Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q28. Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)

  • static default routes
  • implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
  • redundant links between Layer 2 switches
  • link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
  • removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q29. What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

  • Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.
  • The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
  • Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
  • A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q30. What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

  • Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
  • New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.
  • CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
  • ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q31. What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

  • MAC address
  • VLAN ID
  • IP address
  • port ID
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q32. Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

  • port ID
  • IP address
  • extended system ID
  • MAC address
  • bridge priority
  • cost
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q33. Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?

  • spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0
  • spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
  • spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
  • spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q34. Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?

  • STP
  • Rapid PVST+
  • PVST+
  • MST
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q35. Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

  • STP
  • Rapid PVST+
  • PVST+
  • MSTP
  • RSTP
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q36. What is an advantage of PVST+?

  • PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
  • PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.
  • PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
  • PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q37. In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)

  • blocking
  • disabled
  • forwarding
  • learning
  • listening
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q38. If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?

  • lowest IP address
  • lowest MAC address
  • highest IP address
  • highest MAC address
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q39. Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?

  • trunk ports
  • designated ports
  • root ports
  • edge ports
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q40. A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

  • Link types are determined automatically.
  • Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
  • Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
  • Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q41. Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

  • listening
  • learning
  • forwarding
  • blocking
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q42. To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

  • The root bridge BID.
  • The role of the ports in all VLANs.
  • The status of native VLAN ports.
  • The number of broadcasts received on each root port.
  • The IP address of the management VLAN interface.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q43. What is the purpose of HSRP?

  • It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
  • It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
  • It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
  • It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q44. Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?

  • HSRP
  • VRRPv2
  • GLBP
  • SLB
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

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Q47. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to enable Rapid PVST+.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q48. Fill in the blank.

In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single virtual router.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q49. What could be the effect of duplicate unicast frames arriving at a destination device due to multiple active alternative physical paths?

  • Frame collisions increase.
  • The number of broadcast domains increases.
  • Application protocols malfunction.
  • The number of collision domains increases.
Explanation:  When multiple alternative physical paths exist, duplicate unicast frames from a sending host are sent to the destination. Many application protocols expect to receive only one copy of each packet, especially TCP-based protocols that use sequence number and acknowledge number to track the sequence of packets. Multiple copies of the same frame could cause application protocols to make errors in processing the packets. Broadcast storms are caused by switches flooding broadcast frames endlessly. With microsegmentation, collisions are controlled within each switch port.

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Q51. Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a lower cost to the root bridge?

  • designated port
  • root port
  • alternate
  • disabled port
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q52. Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?

  • RSTP
  • PVST+
  • MST
  • MSTP
  • Rapid PVST+
Explanation:  Cisco switches running IOS 15.0 or later run PVST+ by default. Cisco Catalyst switches support PVST+, Rapid PVST+, and MSTP. However, only one version can be active at any time.

Q53. What value determines the root bridge when all switches connected by trunk links have default STP configurations?

  • VLAN ID
  • MAC address
  • extended system ID
  • bridge priority
Explanation:  When all switches are configured with the same default bridge priority, the MAC address becomes the deciding factor for the election of the root bridge. All links on the same VLAN will also have the same extended system ID so this will not contribute to determine which switch is the root for that VLAN.

Q54. Which two concepts relate to a switch port that is intended to have only end devices attached and intended never to be used to connect to another switch? (Choose two.)

  • bridge ID
  • edge port
  • extended system ID
  • PortFast
  • PVST+
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q55. Which Cisco switch feature ensures that configured switch edge ports do not cause Layer 2 loops if a port is mistakenly connected to another switch?

  • BPDU guard
  • extended system ID
  • PortFast
  • PVST+
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

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Q57. Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate.

To enable Rapid PVST+ on a Cisco switch, the spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration mode command is required
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q58. Fill in the blank. Use a number.

The default hello timer value for STP BPDU frames is 2 seconds.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

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