The CCNA 2 Chapter 2 focuses on the Static Routing, which is an essential part of the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) curriculum. Static Routing is a method of manually defining specific routes for data packets to follow through a network. This approach is typically used in smaller networks, where a limited number of routers are present and network administrators are familiar with the network topology. The objective of this chapter is to provide a comprehensive understanding of the Static Routing concepts, and how to configure and manage static routes. The chapter includes topics such as the routing table, the default route, and static routing, as well as troubleshooting static routing issues. After completing this chapter, the students will be able to configure, verify, and troubleshoot static routing in a network.
The CCNA 2 Chapter 2: Static Routing (v5.0.3 + v6.0) exam is an important exam for those looking to advance their careers in networking. The exam covers important topics such as static routing and its various applications in networking. Certificationanswersout.com provides a comprehensive list of questions and answers to help students pass this exam. If you have any new questions on this exam, simply leave a comment with the question and multiple-choice list below the article. Our team of experts will update the answers for you as soon as possible. Your contribution to the website is greatly valued, and we appreciate your support.
Q1. What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
- Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
- Static routing scales well with expanding networks.
- Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation.
- Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing.
- Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks.
Explanation: Static routing requires a thorough understanding of the entire network for proper implementation. It can be prone to errors and does not scale well for large networks. Static routing uses fewer router resources, because no computing is required for updating routes. Static routing can also be more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
Q2. Question
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q3. What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?
- ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 serial 0/0/0
- ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120
- ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0
- ip route 172.16.0.0 255.248.0.0 10.0.0.1
Explanation: Floating static routes are used as backup routes, often to routes learned from dynamic routing protocols. To be a floating static route, the configured route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route. For example, if the primary route is learned through OSPF, then a floating static route that serves as a backup to the OSPF route must have an administrative distance greater than 110. The administrative distance on a floating static route is put at the end of the static route: ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120.
Q4. What is a characteristic of a static route that matches all packets?
- It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol.
- It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.
- It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.
- It is configured with a higher administrative distance than the original dynamic routing protocol has.
Explanation: A default static route is a route that matches all packets. It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route. A default static route is simply a static route with 0.0.0.0/0 as the destination IPv4 address. Configuring a default static route creates a gateway of last resort.
Q5. What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?
- dynamic route
- default route
- destination route
- generic route
Explanation: A static default route is a catch-all route for all unmatched networks.
Q6. Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
- to be used as a backup route
- to load-balance the traffic
- to act as a gateway of last resort
- to be the priority route in the routing table
Explanation: By default, dynamic routing protocols have a higher administrative distance than static routes. Configuring a static route with a higher administrative distance than that of the dynamic routing protocol will result in the dynamic route being used instead of the static route. However, should the dynamically learned route fail, then the static route will be used as a backup.
Q7. A company has several networks with the following IP address requirements:
IP phones – 50 PCs – 70 IP cameras – 10 wireless access points – 10 network printers – 10 network scanners – 2
Which block of addresses would be the minimum to accommodate all of these devices if each type of device was on its own network?
- 172.16.0.0/25
- 172.16.0.0/24
- 172.16.0.0/23
- 172.16.0.0/22
Explanation: The network for the PCs would require a subnet mask of /25 in order to accommodate 70 devices. That network could use IP addresses 0 through 127. Phones require a subnet mask of /26 for 50 devices (addresses 128-191). Three /28 networks are needed in order to accommodate cameras, APs, and printers. The network scanner network can use a /30. A block of addresses with a mask of /24 will accommodate this site as the minimum amount needed.
Q8. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into the down state?
- The static route is removed from the routing table.
- The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
- The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
- The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.
Explanation: When the interface associated with a static route goes down, the router will remove the route because it is no longer valid.
Q9. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
- C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
- S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
- C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
- S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
Explanation: The route will appear in the routing with a code of S (Static).
Q10. Question
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q11. Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?
- recursive static route
- directly connected static route
- fully specified static route
- default static route
Explanation: When only the exit interface is used, the route is a directly connected static route. When the next-hop IP address is used, the route is a recursive static route. When both are used, it is a fully specified static route.
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Q13. Question
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Q14. What two pieces of information are needed in a fully specified static route to eliminate recursive lookups? (Choose two.)
- the interface ID exit interface
- the interface ID of the next-hop neighbor
- the IP address of the next-hop neighbor
- the administrative distance for the destination network
- the IP address of the exit interface
Explanation: A fully specified static route can be used to avoid recursive routing table lookups by the router. A fully specified static route contains both the IP address of the next-hop router and the ID of the exit interface.
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Q16. Question
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Q17. Consider the following command: ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5 Which route would have to go down in order for this static route to appear in the routing table?
- a default route
- a static route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network
- an OSPF-learned route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network
- an EIGRP-learned route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network
Explanation: The administrative distance of 5 added to the end of the static route creates a floating static situation for a static route that goes down. Static routes have a default administrative distance of 1. This route that has an administrative distance of 5 will not be placed into the routing table unless the previously entered static route to the 192.168.10.0/24 goes down or was never entered. The administrative distance of 5 added to the end of the static route configuration creates a floating static route that will be placed in the routing table when the primary route to the same destination network goes down. By default, a static route to the 192.168.10.0/24 network has an administrative distance of 1. Therefore, the floating route with an administrative distance of 5 will not be placed into the routing table unless the previously entered static route to the 192.168.10.0/24 goes down or was never entered. Because the floating route has an administrative distance of 5, the route is preferred to an OSPF-learned route (with the administrative distance of 110) or an EIGRP-learned route (with the administrative distance of 110) to the same destination network.
Q18. Question
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q19. A network administrator has entered a static route to an Ethernet LAN that is connected to an adjacent router. However, the route is not shown in the routing table. Which command would the administrator use to verify that the exit interface is up?
- show ip interface brief
- show ip protocols
- show ip route
- tracert
Explanation: The network administrator should use the show ip interface brief command to verify that the exit interface or the interface connected to the next hop address is up and up. The show ip route command has already been issued by the administrator. The show ip protocols command is used when a routing protocol is enabled. The tracert command is used from a Windows PC.
Q20. Consider the following command: ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5 How would an administrator test this configuration?
- Delete the default gateway route on the router.
- Ping any valid address on the 192.168.10.0/24 network.
- Manually shut down the router interface used as a primary route.
- Ping from the 192.168.10.0 network to the 10.10.10.2 addres
Explanation: A floating static is a backup route that only appears in the routing table when the interface used with the primary route is down. To test a floating static route, the route must be in the routing table. Therefore, shutting down the interface used as a primary route would allow the floating static route to appear in the routing table.
Q21. Question
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q22. Which three IOS troubleshooting commands can help to isolate problems with a static route? (Choose three.)
- show version
- ping
- tracert
- show ip route
- show ip interface brief
- show arp
Explanation: The ping, show ip route, and show ip interface brief commands provide information to help troubleshoot static routes. Show version does not provide any routing information. The tracert command is used at the Windows command prompt and is not an IOS command. The show arp command displays learned IP address to MAC address mappings contained in the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table.
Q23. An administrator issues the ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1::/32 gigabitethernet0/0 2001:db8:acad:6::1 100 command on a router. What administrative distance is assigned to this route?
- 0
- 1
- 32
- 100
Explanation: The command ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1::/32 gigabitethernet0/0 2001:db8:acad:6::1 100 will configure a floating static route on a router. The 100 at the end of the command specifies the administrative distance of 100 to be applied to the route.
Q24. Question
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q25. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Why are the pings from PC0 to Server0 not successful?
- The static route to network 192.168.1.0 is misconfigured on Router1.
- The static route to network 192.168.1.0 is misconfigured on Router2.
- The static route to network 192.168.2.0 is misconfigured on Router1.
- The static route to network 192.168.2.0 is misconfigured on Router2.
Explanation: Static routes should specify either a local interface or a next-hop IP address.
Q26. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What IPv6 static route can be configured on router R1 to make a fully converged network?
- ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1
- ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0
- ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:10:12::1
- ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32:77::1
Explanation: To reach the remote network, R1 will need a static route with a destination IPv6 address of 2001:db8:10:12::/64 and an exit interface of S0/0/1. The correct static route configuration will be as follows:ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1.
Q27. Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?
- VLAN 1
- Fa0/0
- Fa0/1
- interface connected to the default gateway
- VLAN 99
Explanation: Interface VLAN 1 is the default management SVI.
Q28. Which statement describes the port speed LED on the Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch?
- If the LED is green, the port is operating at 100 Mb/s.
- If the LED is off, the port is not operating.
- If the LED is blinking green, the port is operating at 10 Mb/s.
- If the LED is amber, the port is operating at 1000 Mb/s.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q29. What is a function of the switch boot loader?
- to speed up the boot process
- to provide security for the vulnerable state when the switch is booting
- to control how much RAM is available to the switch during the boot process
- to provide an environment to operate in when the switch operating system cannot be found
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q30. In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?
- to determine if remote access is enabled
- when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host
- when an end device can reach local devices, but not remote devices
- to determine the MAC address of a directly attached network device on a particular interface
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q31. Question
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Q32. Question
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Q33. What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH to connect to a network device for management purposes?
- Telnet uses UDP as the transport protocol whereas SSH uses TCP.
- Telnet does not provide authentication whereas SSH provides authentication.
- Telnet supports a host GUI whereas SSH only supports a host CLI.
- Telnet sends a username and password in plain text, whereas SSH encrypts the username and password.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q34. In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from obtaining network access?
- CAM table overflow
- MAC address flooding
- DHCP starvation
- DHCP spoofing
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q35. Which method would mitigate a MAC address flooding attack?
- increasing the size of the CAM table
- configuring port security
- using ACLs to filter broadcast traffic on the switch
- increasing the speed of switch ports
Explanation: Port security can be configured on switches to assist in preventing the MAC address table from being overwhelmed with invalid MAC addresses. ACLs will not assist a switch in filtering broadcast traffic, and increasing the size of the CAM table or the speed of switch ports will not resolve this issue.
Q36. Which two features on a Cisco Catalyst switch can be used to mitigate DHCP starvation and DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.)
- port security
- extended ACL
- DHCP snooping
- DHCP server failover
- strong password on DHCP servers
Explanation: In DHCP starvation attacks, an attacker floods the DHCP server with DHCP requests to use up all the available IP addresses that the DHCP server can issue. In DHCP spoofing attacks, an attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the network so that it provides clients with false DNS server addresses. The port security feature can limit the number of dynamically learned MAC addresses per port or allow only known valid NICs to be connected via their specific MAC addresses. The DHCP snooping feature can identify the legitimate DHCP servers and block fake DHCP servers from issuing IP address information. These two features can help fight against DHCP attacks.
Q37. Which two basic functions are performed by network security tools? (Choose two.)
- revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from monitoring network traffic
- educating employees about social engineering attacks
- simulating attacks against the production network to determine any existing vulnerabilities
- writing a security policy document for protecting networks
- controlling physical access to user devices
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q38. An administrator wants to use a network security auditing tool on a switch to verify which ports are not protected against a MAC flooding attack. For the audit to be successful, what important factor must the administrator consider?
- if the CAM table is empty before the audit is started
- if all the switch ports are operational at the same speed
- if the number of valid MAC addresses and spoofed MAC addresses is the same
- the aging-out period of the MAC address table
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q39. Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?
- Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.
- Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.
- Clear the MAC address table on the switch.
- Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q40. Question
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Q41. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
- The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
- Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
- The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
- After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
- If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.
Explanation: Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots. Sticky MAC addresses are learned and added to the running config. These addressess can be retained if the configuration is saved and then rebooted. MAC addresses may also be configured statically (that is, manually). If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.
Q42. A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?
- restrict
- protect
- warning
- shutdown
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q43. Question
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q44. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. What is the missing command on S1?
- ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q45. Question
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q46. What impact does the use of the mdix auto configuration command haveon an Ethernet interface on a switch?
- automatically detects duplex settings
- automatically detects interface speed
- automatically detects copper cable type
- automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q47. Which type of cable does a network administrator need to connect a PC to a switch to recover it after the Cisco IOS software fails to load?
- a coaxial cable
- a console cable
- a crossover cable
- a straight-through cable
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q48. While troubleshooting a connectivity problem, a network administrator notices that a switch port status LED is alternating between green and amber. What could this LED indicate?
- The port has no link.
- The port is experiencing errors.
- The port is administratively down.
- A PC is using the wrong cable to connect to the port.
- The port has an active link with normal traffic activity.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q49. A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
- POST occurred normally.
- The boot process was interrupted.
- There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
- A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
- The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.
Explanation: A switch booting to the Switch> prompt indicates that the switch booted normally. This means a the switch successfully completed POST full version of the Cisco IOS was loaded.
Q50. Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a specific interface?
- show interfaces
- show controllers
- show processes
- show running-config
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q51. Question
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q52. Which protocol or service sends broadcasts containing the Cisco IOS software version of the sending device, and the packets of which can be captured by malicious hosts on the network?
- CDP
- DHCP
- DNS
- SSH
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q53. Question
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q54. The network administrator enters the following commands on a Cisco switch:
Switch(config)# interface vlan1 Switch(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0 Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
What is the effect of entering these commands?
- All devices attached to this switch must be in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet to communicate.
- The switch is able to forward frames to remote networks.
- The address of the default gateway for this LAN is 192.168.1.2/24.
- Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet are able to ping the switch at IP address 192.168.1.2.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q55. Fill in the blank.
- All devices attached to this switch must be in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet to communicate.
- The switch is able to forward frames to remote networks.
- The address of the default gateway for this LAN is 192.168.1.2/24.
- Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet are able to ping the switch at IP address 192.168.1.2.
Explanation: If no violation mode is specified when port security is enabled on a switch port, then the security violation mode defaults to shutdown.
Q56. Which three statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose three.)
- Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.
- Performance is improved because the NIC is able to detect collisions.
- Latency is reduced because the NIC processes frames faster.
- Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.
- Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data flow.
- Performance is improved because the collision detect function is disabled on the device.
Explanation: No answer description available for this question
Q57. Fill in the blank.
”Full-duplex” communication allows both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.Explanation: No answer description available for this question
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