CCNA 2 Chapter 1: Routing Concepts (v5.0.3 + v6.0) Exam Answers – 100% Result

Certification Answers

CCNA 2 Chapter 1 focuses on the fundamental concepts of routing, which is a crucial component in computer networks. The chapter covers a variety of topics including routing algorithms, static and dynamic routing, default routing, and more.

The exam is designed to test your understanding of these concepts and the ability to apply them in real-world scenarios. This is a key exam for those who are pursuing a career in networking and want to further their knowledge in this field.

With a comprehensive list of questions and answers, the Certificationanswersout.com provides a valuable resource for students and professionals looking to pass their CCNA 2 Chapter 1 exam. By studying the material and practicing with the questions, individuals can increase their chances of success and advance their careers in the world of networking.

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Q1. A network administrator enters the command copy running-config startup-config. Which type of memory will the startup configuration be placed into?

  • flash
  • RAM
  • NVRAM
  • ROM
Explanation:  A router contains four types of memory:
RAM – volatile memory used to store the running IOS, running configuration file, routing table, ARP table, as well as serve as a packet buffer
ROM – nonvolatile memory used to hold a limited version of the IOS, bootup instructions, and basic diagnostic software
NVRAM – nonvolatile memory used to hold the startup configuration file
Flash – nonvolatile memory used to hold the IOS and other system files

Q2. Which packet-forwarding method does a router use to make switching decisions when it is using a forwarding information base and an adjacency table?

  • fast switching
  • Cisco Express Forwarding
  • process switching
  • flow process
Explanation:  Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) is the fastest and preferred switching method. It uses a FIB and an adjacency table to perform the task of packet switching. These data structures change with the topology.

Q3. Fill in the blank.

When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and looks in the Routing table to determine the best path to use to forward the packet.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q4. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

  • A router connects multiple IP networks
  • It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses
  • It determines the best path to send packets
  • It provides segmentation at Layer 2
  • It builds a routing table based on ARP requests
Explanation:  Routers connect multiple networks, determine the best path to send packets, and forward packets based on a destination IP address.

Q5. In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.)

  • hostname
  • IP address
  • subnet mask
  • default gateway
  • DNS server address
  • DHCP server address
Explanation:  A host can use its IP address and subnet mask to determine if a destination is on the same network or on a remote network. If it is on a remote network, the host will need a configured default gateway in order to send packets to the remote destination. DNS servers translate names into IP addresses, and DHCP servers are used to automatically assign IP addressing information to hosts. Neither of these servers has to be configured for basic remote connectivity.

Q6. Which software is used for a network administrator to make the initial router configuration securely?

  • SSH client software
  • Telnet client software
  • HTTPS client software
  • terminal emulation client software
Explanation:  Connecting to the router console port is required for making the initial router configuration. A console cable and terminal emulation software are needed to connect to the console port. SSH, Telnet, and HTTPS could be used to configure a router if the router has been configured with IP addresses and its interface can be reached through the network.

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Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q8. What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface on a Cisco IOS router?​

  • The no shutdown command is required to place this interface in an UP state
  • It is a logical interface internal to the router
  • Only one loopback interface can be enabled on a router
  • It is assigned to a physical port and can be connected to other devices
Explanation:  The loopback interface is a logical interface internal to the router and is automatically placed in an UP state, as long as the router is functioning. It is not assigned to a physical port and can therefore never be connected to any other device. Multiple loopback interfaces can be enabled on a router.

Q9. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

  • IP addresses
  • MAC addresses
  • Layer 1 statuses
  • next-hop addresses
  • interface descriptions
  • speed and duplex settings
Explanation:  The command show ip interface brief shows the IP address of each interface, as well as the operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1 and Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and duplex settings, use the command show running-config interface. Next-hop addresses are displayed in the routing table with the command show ip route, and the MAC address of an interface can be seen with the command show interfaces.

Q10. When a router receives a packet, what information must be examined in order for the packet to be forwarded to a remote destination?

  • destination MAC address
  • destination IP address
  • source IP address
  • source MAC address
Explanation:  When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and uses the routing table to search for the best path to that network.

Q11. Which two items are used by a host device when performing an ANDing operation to determine if a destination address is on the same local network? (Choose two.)

  • destination IP address
  • destination MAC address
  • source MAC address
  • subnet mask
  • network number
Explanation:  The result of ANDing any IP address with a subnet mask is a network number. If the source network number is the same as the destination network number, the data stays on the local network. If the destination network number is different, the packet is sent to the default gateway (the router that will send the packet onward toward the destination network).

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Q16. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

  • Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route
  • A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances
  • The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator
  • Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path
  • The metric is always determined based on hop count
  • The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q17. Which two parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? (Choose two.)

  • hop count
  • bandwidth
  • jitter
  • resiliency
  • delay
  • confidentiality
Explanation:  EIGRP uses bandwidth, delay, load, and reliability as metrics for selecting the best path to reach a network.

Q18. What route would have the lowest administrative distance?

  • a directly connected network
  • a static route
  • a route received through the EIGRP routing protocol
  • a route received through the OSPF routing protocol
Explanation:  The most believable route or the route with the lowest administrative distance is one that is directly connected to a router.

Q19. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

  • Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route
  • A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances
  • The value of the administrative distance cannot be altered by the network administrator
  • Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path
  • The metric is always determined based on hop count
  • The metric varies depending on which Layer 3 protocol is being routed
Explanation:  A metric is calculated by a routing protocol and is used to determine the best path (smallest metric value) to a remote network. Administrative distance (AD) is used when a router has two or more routes to a remote destination that were learned from different sources. The source with the lowest AD is installed in the routing table.

Q20. Consider the following routing table entry for R1: D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0 What is the significance of the Serial0/0/0?

  • It is the interface on R1 used to send data that is destined for 10.1.1.0/24
  • It is the R1 interface through which the EIGRP update was learned.
  • It is the interface on the final destination router that is directly connected to the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
  • It is the interface on the next-hop router when the destination IP address is on the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
Explanation:  The Serial0/0/0 indicates the outgoing interface on R1 that is used to send packets for the 10.1.1.0/24 destination network.

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Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q22. A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?

  • The interface fa0/0 has not been activated
  • The configuration needs to be saved first.
  • No packets with a destination network of 172.16.1.0 have been sent to R1.
  • The subnet mask is incorrect for the IPv4 address.
Explanation:  A directly connected network will be added to the routing table when these three conditions are met: (1) the interface is configured with a valid IP address; (2) it is activated with no shutdown command; and (3) it receives a carrier signal from another device that is connected to the interface. An incorrect subnet mask for an IPv4 address will not prevent its appearance in the routing table, although the error may prevent successful communications.

Q23. A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?

  • to forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
  • to add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table
  • to forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
  • to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table
Explanation:  The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 adds a default route to the routing table of a router. When the router receives a packet and does not have a specific route toward the destination, it forwards the packet to the next hop indicated in the default route. A route created with the ip route command is a static route, not a dynamic route.

Q24. What are two common types of static routes in routing tables? (Choose two)

  • a default static route
  • a built-in static route by IOS
  • a static route to a specific network
  • a static route shared between two neighboring routers
  • a static route converted from a route that is learned through a dynamic routing protocol
Explanation:  There are two common types of static routes in a routing table, namely, a static route to a specific network and a default static route. A static route configured on a router can be distributed by the router to other neighboring routers. However, the distributed static route will be a little different in the routing table on neighboring routers.

Q25. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

  • to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
  • to enable the router as an IPv6 router
  • to permit only unicast packets on the router
  • to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group
Explanation:  When the ipv6 unicast-routing command is implemented on a router, it enables the router as an IPv6 router. Use of this command also assigns the router to the all-routers multicast group.

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Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q27. What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture distribution layer?

  • acting as a backbone
  • aggregating all the campus blocks
  • aggregating Layer 3 routing boundaries
  • providing access to end user devices
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q28. A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design which will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)

  • lower bandwidth requirements
  • reduced cost for equipment and user training
  • easier to provide redundant links to ensure higher availability
  • less required equipment to provide the same performance levels
  • simpler deployment for additional switch equipment
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q29. What is a collapsed core in a network design?

  • a combination of the functionality of the access and distribution layers
  • a combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers
  • a combination of the functionality of the access and core layers
  • a combination of the functionality of the access, distribution, and core layers
Explanation:  A collapsed core design is appropriate for a small, single building business. This type of design uses two layers (the collapsed core and distribution layers consolidated into one layer and the access layer). Larger businesses use the traditional three-tier switch design model.

Q30. Which two previously independent technologies should a network administrator attempt to combine after choosing to upgrade to a converged network infrastructure? (Choose two.)

  • user data traffic
  • analog and VoIP phone traffic
  • scanners and printers
  • mobile cell phone traffic
  • electrical system
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q31. What is a definition of a two-tier LAN network design?

  • access and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the distribution layer on a separate tier
  • access and distribution layers collapsed into one tier, and the core layer on a separate tier
  • distribution and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the access layer on a separate tier
  • access, distribution, and core layers collapsed into one tier, with a separate backbone layer
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q32. A local law firm is redesigning the company network so that all 20 employees can be connected to a LAN and to the Internet. The law firm would prefer a low cost and easy solution for the project. What type of switch should be selected?

  • fixed configuration
  • modular configuration
  • stackable configuration
  • StackPower
  • StackWise
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q33. What are two advantages of modular switches over fixed-configuration switches? (Choose two.)

  • lower cost per switch
  • increased scalability
  • lower forwarding rates
  • need for fewer power outlets
  • availability of multiple ports for bandwidth aggregation
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

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Q35. What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?

  • forwards data based on logical addressing
  • duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
  • learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
  • determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

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Q37. What two criteria are used by a Cisco LAN switch to decide how to forward Ethernet frames? (Choose two.)

  • path cost
  • egress port
  • ingress port
  • destination IP address
  • destination MAC address
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q38. Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?

  • firewall
  • hub
  • router
  • switch
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q39. Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?

  • destination IP address
  • source IP address
  • destination MAC address
  • source MAC address
Explanation:  When a switch receives a frame with a source MAC address that is not in the MAC address table, the switch will add that MAC address to the table and map that address to a specific port. Switches do not use IP addressing in the MAC address table.

Q40. What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

  • to create fewer collision domains
  • to enhance user bandwidth
  • to create more broadcast domains
  • to eliminate virtual circuits
  • to isolate traffic between segments
  • to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q41. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are displayed?

  • 1
  • 4
  • 8
  • 16
  • 55
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q42. Which statement describes the microsegmentation feature of a LAN switch?

  • Frame collisions are forwarded.
  • Each port forms a collision domain.
  • The switch will not forward broadcast frames.
  • All ports inside the switch form one collision domain.
Explanation:  When a LAN switch with the microsegmentation feature is used, each port represents a segment, which in turns forms a collision domain. If each port is connected with an end-user device, there will be no collisions. However, if multiple end devices are connected to a hub and the hub is connected to a port on the switch, some collisions will occur in that particular segment-but not beyond it.

Q43. What is the destination address in the header of a broadcast frame?

  • 0.0.0.0
  • 255.255.255.255
  • 11-11-11-11-11-11
  • FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q44. Fill in the blank.

converged network is one that uses the same infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

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Q48. What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?

  • has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames
  • makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame
  • has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications​
  • provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

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Q51. ABC, Inc. has about fifty hosts in one LAN. The administrator would like to increase the throughput of that LAN. Which device will increase the number of collision domains and thereby increase the throughput of the LAN?

  • hub
  • host
  • NIC
  • switch
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q52. What does the term “port density” represent for an Ethernet switch?

  • the numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port
  • the speed of each port
  • the memory space that is allocated to each switch port
  • the number of available ports
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q53. Which type of transmission does a switch use when the destination MAC address is not contained in the MAC address table?

  • anycast
  • unicast
  • broadcast
  • multicast
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q54. What information is added to the switch table from incoming frames?

  • source MAC address and incoming port number
  • destination MAC address and incoming port number
  • destination IP address and incoming port number
  • source IP address and incoming port number
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q55. An administrator purchases new Cisco switches that have a feature called StackPower. What is the purpose of this feature?

  • It enables many switches to be connected with a special fiber-optic power cable to provide higher bandwidth.
  • It enables the sharing of power among multiple stackable switches.
  • It enables many switches to be connected to increase port density.
  • It enables many switches to be physically stacked in an equipment rack.
  • It enables AC power for a switch to be provided from a powered patch panel.
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q56. Which switch form factor should be used when large port density, fault tolerance, and low price are important factors?

  • fixed-configuration switch
  • modular switch
  • stackable switch
  • rackable 1U switch
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

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Q58. What tool is important to consider for use when making hardware improvement decisions about switches?

  • switched virtual interfaces
  • authentication servers
  • multilayer switching
  • traffic flow analysis
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q59. What is the maximum wire speed of a single port on a 48-port gigabit switch?

  • 1000 Mb/s
  • 48 Mb/s
  • 48 Gb/s
  • 100 Mb/s
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

Q60. When the installation of a network infrastructure is being planned, which technology will allow power to be provided via Ethernet cabling to a downstream switch and its connected devices?

  • PoE pass-through
  • Gigabit Ethernet
  • wireless APs and VoIP phones
  • PoE
Explanation:  No answer description available for this question

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